“Would You also destroy the righteous with the wicked?” (Gen 18:23)
I’ve always found the conversation between Abraham and the Lord in Genesis 18 very interesting. Abraham is negotiating with God to save “the righteous” in Sodom, and starts by asking if God would reconsider destroying Sodom if there were but 50 righteous people there…then 45…then 40…30, 20, and finally 10. The Lord said that he would not destroy Sodom for the sake of 10.
Abraham, in a fit of compassion, is so bold as to question the Lord.
I thought it interesting that Abraham stopped the negotiation after 10. According to all that we know about God, I feel pretty confident that God would have spared Sodom for the sake of even 1 righteous person. Of course, Abraham failed to realize that there is none who is righteous; no, not one. Every person in Sodom was a sinful, fallen man, and they all deserved death (it is the wage of sin).
How often do we do that? We get our own standard stuck in our head and then we either question God’s wisdom and will for man, or we ignore it altogether.
Compassion is a dangerous area. No one wants to be mean; no one wants to be the bad guy. Then, the world hits you with the old, “I mean, come on, you will not surely die, for that?” Satan didn’t just get lucky with that argument, he crafted it very purposefully. If we can be reasonably convinced to doubt or question the wisdom of God based on our own wisdom, our own understanding, or our own hearts, there is no limit to what we can accomplish.
We will eventually presume to have a better judgment of mercy, righteousness, and salvation than even God.
Lord, You alone are the Truth, the Light, and the Way, help us to trust and follow You.
Sunday, December 2, 2007
Bold Compassion Versus Humble Faith
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5 comments:
While Abraham might not have realized the fact that none were really righteous in Sodom, the fact is that the Lord must have thought there were at least four to send angels to get Lot, his wife & 2 daughters out of there. I myself have trouble considering Lot "righteous", given his behavior, but I'm not God. In the NT Peter refers to Lot as "righteous" (II Pet. 2:7). So you're right, we must defer to God's standard, not ours. Honestly, this whole thing about Lot being righteous is one of those things I just put on the shelf and tell God I really don't understand this but trust that He will enlighten me in His time. It doesn't change my trust in Him.
I believe God knew the score before Abraham ever opened his mouth, and God spared Lot because of His goodness…not Lot’s.
I really like the Complete Jewish Bible on this one. In their literal translation of the written word, they leave out the word “so” at the beginning of verse 26. When we read “so,” we often assume that God’s response to Abraham was a concession as opposed to merely a statement He made to Abraham because of his concerns.
God knew Abraham's heart; Abraham didn’t talk God into any act of mercy or compassion He hadn’t already decided to exercise. Abraham asked a question of God’s character, “Suppose there were fifty righteous within the city,” and God made a statement about His character, “If I find in Sodom fifty righteous within the city, then I will spare the whole place for their sakes.” (Gen 18:24, 26)
Also, when considering whether Lot was saved because he was righteous, consider that the angels (operating on God’s orders) were willing to save Lot’s daughters and sons-in-law whom the Bible demonstrates were far from righteous. I’d be interested to know what Abraham’s definition of righteous was compared to what God knows to be the full limit of man’s righteousness…and which is closest to what Peter was talking about.
Lot didn't have any sons-in-law, hence the events of chapter 19:30ff, another enigma.
Gen 19:12-14 indicates Lot had at least two sons-in-law that the angels were willing to also spare, and while Lot alerted the sons-in-law to the danger, they did not believe and chose not to leave Sodom.
Does the Bible ever discuss Lot's family/children outside of Genesis 19?
I'll get to your question in just a moment but yes, I see the reference to sons-in-law in Gen. 19. A real dilemma, though - NAS vs 14 refers to them as sons-in-law, who were to marry his daughters. CJB translates this as sons-in-law who had married his daughters. If the latter is true, how can Lot offer two "virgin daughters" in vs. 8? It also might be that Lot had sons in the city as well (v. 12).
Lot's grandchildren are mentioned often in the OT: the Moabites and the Ammonites, both enemies of Israel.
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